Friday, March 4, 2016

President, INC

Someone emailed me this:

On the trump website, donate part: https://secure.donaldjtrump.com/donate/

-below the form, there is a window about the limits for donating.

It says he is running for: President, Inc. Does that confirm that the US is just a corporation? funny to see it like that!


Frans

And I responded with this:


Yes it does. Look at Title 28 U.S.C. section 3002. That section states the UNITED STATES is a Federal Corporation. Google it and see for yourself. Congress is the board of directors.
That corporation is also bankrupt and civilly dead. Does not exist in law. House Joint Resolution 192 82nd Congress May 9th 1933.

13 comments:

Anonymous said...

While the US may be a corporation (it is), that's not what the Trump site says.

$2,700 is the maximum amount an individual may give for the PRIMARY election to Donald J. Trump for President, Inc.

That statement refers to the corp set up for Trump's campaign, named 'Donald J. Trump for President, Inc.'

Thinking this statement says he is running for a position called 'President, Inc.' makes us look like fools re: the whole USACorp issue.

Anonymous said...

Talk about selective reading. First of all, those definitions only apply to one chapter of the US Code. The very first words of that section state:

"28 U.S. Code § 3002 - Definitions

As used in this chapter:"

And under United States, it says:

"(15) “United States” means—

(A) a Federal corporation;

(B) an agency, department, commission, board, or other entity of the United States; or

(C) an instrumentality of the United States. "

Freewill, with this selective reading to fit your corporate agenda You are committing as much of a fraud as you accuse the "corporate government" of.

Freewill said...

As far as I am concerned.. If they intended for their definitions to be kept together and not selective, then they would not have used A,B,C to separate them. My 10 year old daughter understands that. And the only corporate agenda I have is to soon have a company manufacturing free energy devices..

Anonymous said...

First of all, when it comes to law, it does not matter 'as far as you are concerned'. What matters is the intent of Congress in making the law, and they say it is for that chapter ONLY. And if you are so sure this is a universal definition, why does it say for purposes of this chapter? If your daughter understands it the way you put it, she has no concept of how to read law.

What about this definition:

Title 26, Subtitle D, Chapter 38, Subchapter A, Sec. 4612 For purposes of this subchapter -
(4) United States
In general
The term "United States means the 50 States, the District of Columbia, the Commonwealth of Puerto Rico, any possession of the United States, the Commonwealth of the Northern Marianna Islands, and the Trust Territory of the Pacific Islands.

Note, there is no mention of United States meaning a federal corporation for this subchapter, therefore it doesn't.

Or here is what the Supreme Court of the United States (and don't say United States Supreme Court, there is no such thing) says:
The term "United States" may be used in any one of several senses. [1] It may be merely the name of a sovereign occupying the position analogous to that of other sovereigns in the family of nations. [2] It may designate the territory over which the sovereignty of the United States extends, or [3] it may be the collective name of the states which are united by and under the Constitution. [Hooven & Allison Co. vs Evatt, 324 U.S. 652 (1945)]

Note this was after your so called bankruptcy of 1933 and nothing is mentioned about a defunct corporation.

Show me anywhere it says Congress is a board of directors. I challenge you to find this anywhere. Please stop making this fraudulent nonsense up and misleading people. I am coming to believe more and more that you are a cointelpro disinfo specialist.

Freewill said...

Just like the original 13th Amendment and the civil peace flag, they hide those facts as the same that Congress is nothing more than a board of Directors of a civilly dead corporation. Read the 14th Amendment articles 2 through 5. When they step outside of those, they become a corporation.

Also if you keep bashing me I will start depositing your comments directly into the spam comments section. Got it chump?

Anonymous said...

There is nothing about the USACorp issue that does not make you look like fools. This is yet another example of how they misread everything here to fit that agenda.

Freewill said...

S.C.R. 1795, Penhallow v. Doane's Administrators (3 U.S. 54; 1 L.Ed. 57; 3 Dall. 54
Government Is Foreclosed from Parity with Real People
– Supreme Court of the United States 1795

"Inasmuch as every government is an artificial person, an abstraction, and a creature of
the mind only, a government can interface only with other artificial persons. The imaginary,
having neither actuality nor substance, is foreclosed from creating and attaining parity
with the tangible. The legal manifestation of this is that no government, as well as any
law, agency, aspect, court, etc. can concern itself with anything other than corporate,
artificial persons and the contracts between them."
Supreme Court of the United States 1795
[--Not the "United States Supreme Court" –ed.]

CRUDEN v. NEALE 2N.C. (1796) 2 SE 70 "Every man is independent of all laws, except those prescribed by nature. He is not bound by any institutions formed by his fellowmen without his consent"

marie said...

Very good!

marie said...

As I have said before...Trump needs to be contacted by a group [maybe ANON 2] in the freedom movement to see where he stands on the list of things the we are concerned about. Others contact him. Alex Jones interviewed him and Roger stone. If we cannot get Trump let's contact Roger stone. He talks to Trump every day. If not now when? If not trump then who? This is it!!! This is just my opinion.

Unknown said...

Touche' Freewill! Thanks 4 the great cites clearly showing people are not subject to the corp[se] fiction construct, EXCEPT by one's CONSENT. Truly, "consent of the governed" is necessary to continue the corp[se] fiction "person" slavery model... just sayin....
Perhaps one might DENY one's consent at every trespass upon one's identity and sovereignty as one's BEing & DOing sui juris Act to defeat tyranny.
Blessings 2 all peacefully lawfully BEing & DOing 4 good of ALL :D in Love, Peace, Justice, Joy & More :D

Anonymous said...

To Anon 10:03. You missed it!!! Let a legal researcher explain this to you. You looked up 26 USC Subtitle D. First: This is not law and has never been voted into positive law by Congress. Second: Subtitle D is enforcement for excise taxes an alcohol, Tobacco and Firearms under the China Trade Act of 1903. The definition of United States in Subtitle D is different than in Subtitle A which pertains to the personal income tax, which is not under the China Trade Act. State and United States are defined as follows in Subtitle A.(1) State: The term "State" includes the District of Columbia, the Commonwealth of Puerto Rico, the Virgin Islands, Guam, and American Samoa. [NOT TENNESSEE, MASSACHUSETTS, CONNECTICUT, etc.](2) United States: The term "United States" when used in a geographical sense includes the Commonwealth of Puerto Rico, the Virgin Islands, Guam, and American Samoa. [NOT TENNESSEE, MASSACHUSETTS, CONNECTICUT, etc.] The term "incleds has been defined by the Court to be exclusionary to all other things not mentioned in the Statute under Subtitle A. The term "includes" has been determined to be inclusionary when used in the context of excise taxes and enforcement under Subtitle D. Also Note that the Supreme Court reference you sighted uses the word "state" and Subtitle D uses the word "State" which refers to Federal Trade Zones within the union state. Lets look at the definition of United States citizen while we are at it. 26 CFR 31.3121(e)(b) defines “citizen of the United States” as follows: (b)… The term ‘citizen of the United States’ includes a citizen of the Commonwealth of Puerto Rico or the Virgin Islands, and, effective January 1, 1961, a citizen of Guam or American Samoa. No mention of any union states here. continued:

Anonymous said...

Lets go a little deeper into the tax code. Now, let’s read the definition of “wages” at 26 U.S.C. § 3401(a):
Sec. 3401. - Definitions(a) Wages
For purposes of this chapter, the term "wages" means all remuneration (other than fees
paid to a public official) for services performed by an employee for his employer,
The term “wages” means all remuneration paid to an “employee” as defined at § 3401(c):
(c) Employee
For purposes of this chapter, the term "employee" includes an officer, employee, or
elected official of the United States, a State, or any political subdivision thereof, or the District of Columbia, or any agency or instrumentality of any one or more of the
foregoing. The term "employee" also includes an officer of a corporation.
The definition of “employee” at § 3401(c) consists of two sentences. The first sentence enumerates kinds and classes of federal workers, which is clarified by looking up the terms “United States” and “State”, which are specially defined at §§ 701(a)(9)&(10),respectively:
Sec. 7701. Definitions
(a) When used in this title, where not otherwise distinctly expressed or manifestly
incompatible with the intent thereof -
(9) United States
The term "United States" when used in a geographical sense includes only the States
and the District of Columbia.
(10) State
The term "State" shall be construed to include the District of Columbia, where such
construction is necessary to carry out provisions of this title.
In accordance with the definition of “includes” at § 7701(c) as interpreted by the 1st Circuit in Brigham v. United States, 160 F.3d 759 (1st Cir. 1998), the term “State” as used in section 3401(c) means a federal “State”, e.g., the District of Columbia, or a “State” listed in the same general class, such as the Commonwealth of Puerto Rico, but not a foreign State such as Spain or France, and not a union state such as California or Texas.
The second sentence in § 3401(c) tells us that the term “employee” also includes an officer of a corporation, which we properly understand to mean “an officer of a federal corporation”. continued:

Anonymous said...

Congress gave public notice in the Federal Register, on Tuesday, September 7, 1943, at page 12267, section 404.104, of its intended meaning of its specially defined “word-of-art” term “employee”:
§ 404.104 - Employee.
The term "employee" includes every individual performing services if the relationship
between him and the person for whom he performs such services is the legal relationship of employer and employee. The term specifically includes officers and employees whether elected or appointed, of the United States, a State, Territory, or any political subdivision thereof, or the District of Columbia, or any agency or instrumentality of any one or more of the foregoing.
Vol. 8, Federal Register (Tuesday, September 7, 1943) p. 12267.
According to Congress’ public notice in the Federal Register, the term “employee”
specifically includes officers and employees whether elected or appointed, of the United States, a [federal] State, Territory, or any political subdivision thereof, or the District of Columbia, or any agency or instrumentality of any one or more of the foregoing. This public notice occurred in the historical context of the Public Salary Tax Act of 1939, and the earlier Classification Act of 1923.
The Public Salary Tax Act of 1939, at Section 207, defines a "United States Corporation" as:
"a corporate agency or instrumentality, is one (a) a majority of the stock of which is
owned by or on behalf of the United States, or (b) the power to appoint or select a
majority of the board of directors of which is exercisable by or on behalf of the United
States".
An officer of a federal corporation, or “corporate agency or instrumentality” of the United States, would naturally fall within the definition of “employee” at § 3401(c).
The statutory scheme at 26 U.S.C. § 3121(a) is similar to § 3401(a), although the definition that clarifies the meaning of the term “wages” at § 3121(a) is nested at a deeper level, at § 3121(e)(2). In short, the term “wages” at § 3121(a) means all remuneration for “employment” within the “United States”, which means “the Commonwealth of Puerto Rico, the Virgin Islands, Guam, and American Samoa”. THERE IS NO OBLIGATION TO PAY ANY INCOME TAX ON HOURLY EARNINGS IF YOU ARE NOT EMPLOYED BY THE STATE OR THE FEDERAL GOVERNMENT!!!! Got it!